What NBER failed to mention is that what replaced the recession when it ended was a depression. Then when you compare these 'data' with the 1930's 'data' it shows that the recession also ended in the 1930's followed by - you guessed it! - a depression. The declaration that the recession has ended seems true and it fits the 'data' because just like in the 1930's what then begins is the depression.
Is it possible that these empirical economic numbskulls are right about the end of the recession but they just fail to mention that what follows is a depression?
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